tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3422410239991902086.post5357507547760780157..comments2024-03-26T00:19:08.753-07:00Comments on The World's Ruined: What Role Does the Law Play In Our Daily Renewal?Jack Millerhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/18281378425270530573noreply@blogger.comBlogger5125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3422410239991902086.post-59783573469807738322014-11-17T06:08:05.300-08:002014-11-17T06:08:05.300-08:00Jack, thank you for the explanation. Jack, thank you for the explanation. Anonymoushttps://www.blogger.com/profile/09909768566180778672noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3422410239991902086.post-2776712852688631962014-11-15T20:41:16.032-08:002014-11-15T20:41:16.032-08:00Paul, good questions. All I mean by "although...Paul, good questions. All I mean by "although not strictly as given to the Israelites" is that the Ten Commandments under the Mosaic covenant were give to the nation of Israel with certain particulars not transferred strictly to the New Covenant believers, Jew and Gentile... For example see Calvin's Institutes on the Sabbath commandment. On the 5th commandment there is no land promise for New Testament believers... see Calvin's commentary Eph. 6:2-3. Additionally, the Ten Commandments as given to the nation of Israel were annexed with conditions: conditional blessings upon the keeping thereof and curses upon failing to perform all the Law. These conditions are not part of the moral law in the New Covenant. Christ has fulfilled the conditions of the Law completely for the elect thereby insuring God's blessings upon his people. And Christ has borne for us the curse for our failing to obey all of the Law. Certainly this was also true for the elect in the nation of Israel, but as a nation (elect and no-elect) it was different in that they all bore the curse of exile due to the nation's continued disobedience under the various kings. <br /><br />Yes, the moral law as given by Christ to his church is summarized in the Ten Commandments, especially as unpacked by Jesus in the Gospels, the writers of the Epistles, and as further explained in the Westminster Larger Catechism.Jack Millerhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/18281378425270530573noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3422410239991902086.post-56220956201067458812014-11-15T12:02:10.683-08:002014-11-15T12:02:10.683-08:00Jack, could you explain what you mean by "alt...Jack, could you explain what you mean by "although not strictly as given to the Israelites"? You also wrote, "That thankfulness finds its expression in our grateful duty as we endeavor to walk in conformity to Christ’s moral law, it being the guide or rule of our obedience." What is Christ's moral law? Is it summarized in the 10 commandments? Or does it include all 10 and more? Anonymoushttps://www.blogger.com/profile/09909768566180778672noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3422410239991902086.post-90067675317802754032014-11-06T15:33:21.456-08:002014-11-06T15:33:21.456-08:00Basically, the moral law as defined in WCF 19, as ...Basically, the moral law as defined in WCF 19, as summed up in the Ten Commandments, although not strictly as given to the Israelites. And I would take some exceptions to how the WLC unpacks those ten commandments. In a word, whatever was required that Christ fulfilled on our behalf, both as to the payment for sin and the fulfilling of all obedience.Jack Millerhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/18281378425270530573noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3422410239991902086.post-80714119794579932952014-11-06T15:13:59.284-08:002014-11-06T15:13:59.284-08:00Which "moral law" are we talking about? ...Which "moral law" are we talking about? Since God is moral, even God's ceremonial and positive commands. Are you thinking of the law associated with one specific covenant (or as you would say-"administration")? For example, is Christ's command to wash feet a "moral law"? What about Christ's command to not resist in kind but overcome evil with good? What about the new covenant command to eagerly hope for Christ's second coming?<br /><br />With your basic point, I am in full agreement. Whatever law we are talking about, no matter if the sinners are Jews or gentiles, if these sinners are elect in Christ, then Christ has fully satisfied "the requirement" (singular, Romans 8:4) of the law.<br /><br /><br />I Corinthians 9:19 For though I am free from all men, I have made myself a servant to all, in order to win the more; 20 and to the Jews I became as a Jew, in order to win Jews; to those who are under the law, as under the law, in order to win those who are under the law; 21 to those who are without law, as without law (not being without law toward God, but under law toward Christ), in order to win those who are without lawMarkhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/06233995709579822605noreply@blogger.com